S-378 Aerial Supervision PCW


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1. What are three types of Aerial Supervision resources?

A) ATGS, ATCO, HLCO
B) HELB, AOBD, OSC
C) STAM, TOLC, ASGS
D) DIVS, ASGS, ASM

2. What section of the IASG would you find the qualification requirements for Aerial Supervision resources?

A) Chapter 1
B) Chapter 7
C) Chapter 3
D) Appendix A

3. An ATGS is an airborne firefighter who coordinates, assigns, and evaluates the use of aerial resource in support of incident objectives.

A) True
B) False

4. An Airtanker Coordinator (ATCO) and Leadplane pilot are recognized positions in the Incident Command System and are both approved for low level flight (below 500� AGL) operations.

A) True
B) False

5. What are the two positions that make up the crew of an Aerial Supervision Module (ASM)?

A) Air Support Group Supervisor (ASGS) , Air Operations Branch Director (AOBD)
B) Air Tactical Pilot (ATP), Air Tactical Supervisor (ATS)
C) MAFFS pilot, MAFFS qualified Leadplane
D) Helicopter Coordinator (HLCO), Helibase Manager (HELB)

6. Select the correct answers to fill in the blanks:

In addition to meeting the requirements in the PMS 310-1 and the FS 5109-17 the ATGS biennially must document a minimum of______ missions or _________ hours and forward an annual mission summary to the GACC ATGS Representative.

A) 8, 16
B) 4, 8
C) 15, 25
D) 5, 20

7. When is a Leadplane/ATCO/ASM required over an incident?

A) Four or more airtankers are over the incident, adverse weather conditions
B) Airtanker not IA rated, Level 2 SEAT operations, if no ATGS, MAFFS
C) On every all hazard or HAZMAT incident, congested areas
D) Two or more helicopters, incidents with two or more branches, smokejumpers

8. What four factors influence drop effectiveness and coverage level during airtanker operations?

A) Airtanker base location; closest jetport; incident of national significance; water source
B) Altimeter setting; hazards; drop clearance; reload instructions
C) Policy and regulations; delayed attack fires; intelligence reports; incident frequencies
D) Pilot skill; aircraft make and model; tanking, gating or door system; wind

9. What initial attack responsibilities does the ATGS/Aerial Supervisor, in consultation with dispatch, have when an Incident Commander is not present?

A) Fire size up; resource recommendation; briefing ground resources; development of tactical plan
B) Leadplane profile; aircraft minimum airspeed; leadplane pilot currency; ATGS check ride
C) Helibase location; designation of HELB; designation of HLCO; order additional flight helmets
D) Review aviation plan; review national airtanker contract; review local mobilization guide; review military operations guide
E) All the above

10. The effectiveness of retardant/suppressant drops for SEATs should be closely evaluated when wind velocities reach:

A) 15-20 kts.
B) 25-30 kts.
C) 20-25 kts.
D) Gusts over 40 kts.

11. A liquid fire suppression substance applied directly to the flame base to extinguish the flame (water, foam, gel) is an:


12. A chemical mixture applied using direct or indirect tactics to cool the fire, reduce the rate of fire spread, or to establish a line from which other firefighting methods can be deployed, i.e., burnout, backfire, etc. is a:


13. What is the acronym for Above Ground Level?


14. What is a weak or missed area in a retardant line?


15. Turn left or right. Applies to aircraft in flight, usually on the drop run and when given as a command to the pilot. Implies immediate compliance. What is the command?


16. What begins in the morning and ends in the evening when the center of the sun is geometrically 6 degrees below the horizon.


17. The landmark or feature utilized to maintain horizontal aircraft separation is called a:


18. To drop retardant so that the load overlaps and lengthens a previous drop is to________ or Tag On.


19. To change in aircraft assignment from one target to another or to a new incident is to:


20. A non-fire airborne position designed to supervise airplanes on incidents is a:


21. A low pass over the target without dropping to elevate drop conditions and/or alert ground personnel of an impending live run is called a:


22. A reporting location clearly identified by the aerial supervisor. It may be a lat/long or geographic point (landmark) is called the:


23. A FAA (non-specific) term for areas that require additional precautions and procedures to conduct low-level flight operations is:


24. The retardant/suppressant gallon capacity for a Type 1 Incident Command System (ICS) airtanker is ___________ gallons.


25. The retardant/suppressant gallon capacity for a Type 2 Incident Command System (ICS) airtanker is _______ to _______ gallons.

A) 3000 to 3500
B) 1800 to 2999
C) 500 to 700
D) 1000 to 2000

26. The retardant/suppressant gallon capacity for a Type 3 Incident Command System (ICS) airtanker is _______ to _______ gallons.

A) 3000-3500
B) 1800 to 2999
C) 800 to 1799
D) 500 to 750

27. The retardant/suppressant gallon capacity for a Type 4 Incident Command System (ICS) airtanker is less than __________ gallons.

A) less than 400
B) less than 800
C) less than 700
D) less than 250

28. ICS categorizes three types of helicopters based on what criteria?

(Choose 2)

A) Manufacturer; number of rotor blades; tail number
B) Minimum gallons of water/retardant; lift capability; number of passenger seats
C) Retardant/suppressant delivery system; foaming agent type; bucket system
D) Density altitude; altimeter setting; load calculations

29. The airspace surrounding an incident is controlled by the Aerial Supervisor who must implement Fire Traffic Area (FTA) procedures. What are the three C�s of initial contact?

A) Control, Confine, Contain
B) Communication, Clearance, Comply
C) Control, Coordinate, Concentrate
D) Command, Calibrate, Contour

30. Dispatch centers must provide to the Aerial Supervisor what item as part of the mission briefing?

A) ICS 211, Check-in List
B) Regional Mobilization Guide
C) Aircraft Dispatch form
D) Incident Action Plan

31. After take off what is an en route procedure that the Aerial Supervisor should perform?

A) Record time dispatch informed you of a possible dispatch.
B) Notify dispatch of ETA/ETE to incident
C) Maintain sterile cockpit procedures from takeoff to return from the incident.
D) Begin tactical planning en route before notifying ground forces.

32. What chapter of the IASG would you find the table that lists the possible uses of aircraft by incident type?

A) Chapter 2
B) Chapter 10
C) Chapter 8
D) Chapter 3

33. Acceptance of risk is normal, especially during a busy fire season when resources are in high demand. In these situations the risk mitigation process does not need to be considered due to the objectives of the mission if properly documented.

A) True
B) False

34. What section of the IASG contains the list of items for the Aerial Supervisor�s kit and Aerial Supervision resources?

A) Chapter 1
B) Chapter 11
C) Chapter 9
D) Chapter 12

35. In the ICS extended attack organization the HLCO and HELB work for the ATGS.

A) True
B) False

36. The flight crew standard flight and duty limitations states that the maximum daily flight time for mission flights is __________ hours.


37. The horizontal dimension of a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) is normally a five nautical mile radius with a vertical dimension of:

A) Unlimited altitude
B) 5,000 feet above highest terrain
C) 2,000 feet above highest terrain
D) 1,000 feet above highest terrain
E) There is not a standard TFR

38. A key component of the FTA is the initial contact ring. At what distance from the incident should inbound aerial resources contact the Aerial Supervisor for permission to proceed to the incident?

A) 7 nautical miles
B) 5 nautical miles
C) Immediately after take off
D) 12 nautical miles